For example I pay $1,000 for a put option on the S&P 500 to you every year on January 1st and you turn around and stick that money in the market. Years one through five the option expires worthless, and then year 6 there is a market crash and I cash out my put for $5,000 and put that $5,000 in the market. The simplistic view is that you are currently ‘up’ $1,000 on me, as I paid you $6,000 and you paid me $5,000 out. A slightly better version is that you are “up” $1,000 plus gains from having that money in the market for 5 years. The correct answer though depends on what happened after I put the money in the market. I got a lump sum that was conditional on the market dropping a substantial amount, and there are certainly times where putting $5,000 in all at once out preforms putting $1,000 in 6 separate chunks.
Following our hypothetical you might have invested $1,000 in Jan 2003 when the S&P was around 900, 2004 at ~1,100, 2005 at 1,200, 2006 at 1250, 2007 at 1,400, and 2008 at 1,450 meaning your average purchase price is (ignoring dividends etc) a little over 1,200. I instead get $5,000 to invest at the end of 2008/early 2009 when the market is around 950. Come 2018 my $5,000 purchase in 2008 is worth a (with the S&P at 2,900) little over $15,000. The $6,000 averaged at 1,200 is worth a little over $14,500.
This shows how buying puts can, potentially, turn a profit even when it "costs" more to buy a series of puts than the total payout because the award was associated with the best market buying opportunity in recent memory. What about the put seller? Is he also "up" $15,000 having put none of his own money in play and was just riding off your $6,000 in capital? Well no, he paid you $5,000 so he can't be up the $15,000, is he up $10,000 then? Well, no. He owes you $5,000 in 2009, not in 2018. So is he up $1,000 compounded from 2009 to 2018? No again. To get the $5,000 he (to make it simple) sells the exact shares he bought with the $6,000 you paid in yearly installments. He bought when the S&P was at an average of 1,200 and $6,000 bought him 5 "shares" of the S&P, but he is selling when the market is around 950, and 5 shares of the S&P at 950 sells for $4750. The other $250 has to come out of his own pocket, so his profit in this example is -$250, even though he got $6,000 for a payout of $5,000.
There are a lot of lessons you could glean from this example, such as don't keep your collateral in the same securities that your obligations are priced in.
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